Thursday, 20 October 2016

PHYSICAL EDUCATION SAMPLE PAPER

SAMPLE QUESTIONS (2015-2016)
PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS – XII
Time: 3 Hr. M.M:70
General Instructions:
 All questions are compulsory.
 Question paper consists of 28 questions.
 01 mark questions must be answered in 10-20 words.
 03 mark questions must be answered in 30-50 words.
 05 mark questions must be answered in 75-100 words.
1. What is planning in games and sports? (1)
2. Write one objectives of adventure sports? (1)
3. Define Anorexia Nervosa? (1)
4. What is a good posture? (1)
5. What are Food Supplements? (1)
6. What is Osteoporosis? (1)
7. Your grandmother has severe pain in the legs. Name the test you will suggest to measure
her lower body strength particularly legs? (1)
8. Write one physiological change due to ageing? (1)
9.Define the term Sports Medicine? (1)
10. What is a parabola? (1)
11. Define intrinsic Motivation? (1)
12. Illustrate the differences between Iso-Kinetic and Iso-metric exercises? (3)
13.What is scoliosis? Mention any two corrective exercises for it. (3)
14. What is an eating disorder? Mention its types and explain each. (3)
15. Illustrate the differences between Intramural and Extramural tournaments? (3)
16. What is a knock out tournament? Mention any two disadvantages of knock out tournaments?
(3)
17. Sports are good for all ages. It is good for children to enhance their physical activity if they
take part in organized sports and games and good for senior citizens to remain healthy.
However, the sports activities should be appropriate for the children and motivation
should be provided to the elders.
(2+1)
a) Elaborate any two physiological benefits of exercise in children?
b) Guide your grandfather to remain healthy and mention any four leadership qualities
you would show to test him if he is not ready?
18. Write in brief about any three physiological factors determining speed? (3)
19. Describe the considerations in meal intake which should be taken before, during and after
the competition? (3)
20. Define motor development? Discuss in detail the factors that affect motor development in
children? (5)
21. What is Harvard Step Test? Mention the equipment required to perform it and explain its
procedure? (1+1+3)
22. Gender beliefs still exist in every society of the world even when so many changes have
taken place due to education. Explain any five psychological traits of women athletes?
23. Give five physiological differences between males and females? (5)
24. Explain structure of personality? Describe the role of sports in developing the
personality?(2+3)
25. Define Sports injuries? Write classification, prevention of sports injuries? (5)
26. Define trajectory? Discuss in detail the factors that affect trajectory? (2+3)
Allocation of marks

.

E-SHIP BOARD Q

Portal for CBSE Notes, Test Papers, Sample Papers, Tips and Tricks
Entrepreneurship (2015-16)
Code No. 98/1
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M:100
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Please check that this Question Paper contains 24Questions.
(iii) Marks for each question are indicated against it.
(iv) Question 1 to 5 are Very Short Answer type carrying 1 mark each.
(v) Question 6 to 10 are Short Answer Type questions carrying 2 marks each.
(vi) Question 11 to 17 are Long Answer-I Type questions carrying 3 marks each.
(vii) Question 18 to 21 are Long Answer-II Type questions carrying 4 marks each.
(viii) Question 22 to 24 are Essay Answer Type questions carrying 6 marks each.
(ix) Answer should be brief and to the point.
(x) Please write down the serial number of the Question before attempting it.
1. What is meant by a ‘Business Opportunity’?
2. Give the meaning of ‘Hindu Undivided Family’.
3. Differentiate between ‘Excise Duty’ and Customs Duty’.
4. Paranshu was working with Hitesh. a new entrepreneur, as a Production Manager. To
achieve the objectives, he issues necessary orders and guidelines to his subordinates
pertaining to work and to give practical shape to the production plan.
Identify and state the element being discussed above which is related to one of the
components of a ‘Business Plan’.
5. Define ‘Marketing Strategy’.
6. State any two points of importance of Stock - Exchange from the view point of investors.
7. Explain various types of ‘Brand names’ available to an entrepreneur.
8. How is target market identified while preparing the marketing plan? State.
9. Jalaji an entrepreneur started a new website ‘Fashionate Shirts’ to sell readymade shirts. In
the first year he sold 1200 shirts at the rate of 500 each. His cost of placing an order and
receiving the shirts is 1000 per order. If the Economic Order Quantity is 200 shirts, find out
the inventory holding cost per year.
10. Saurabh wants to start a new business. He is not sure of the type of business he should
start. His friend suggested him to seek the help of professionals. He contacted a
professional who asked Saurabh to pay a big amount for providing the repots and industry
updates. Therefore he decided to search for the reports and industry updates himself. He
scanned the relevant information from various national and international websites.
Identify and state the way that Saurabh is using for spotting the trend. Also state one more
way which will help Saurabh in starting his business.
11. State the first three steps in the process of ‘creativity’.
12. Explain any three features of a ‘Co-operative Organisation’
13. Rohit Shetty stated leader shoe business with his brother. Both were very excited about
the new venture. With meticulous planning and a lot of hard work they were able to sell
700 pairs of shoes in the first year. But they did not earn any profit. Both were happy
because they were not at loss and revenue generated was equal to the cost.
Now they were moving towards earning profit in the second year.
(a) Identify the component of financial plan discussed above.
(b) By giving any four points state how this component is useful for the entrepreneur?
14. Aarav, a small entrepreneur, is manufacturing portable electric iron for domestic use with
the brand name ‘P-IRON’. This iron is in great demand. He finds that the cost of production
per unit of iron is 1,000 and he can be sell the same at 1.200 per unit. The competitors in
the market are selling this type of iron at the rate of 2,000. Aarav’s objective is not to earn
profit in the short -run but to capture the largest market. His expectation is that the
customers will be attracted towards the new brand because of low price.
Identify the method of pricing adopted by Aarav to capture the substantial portion of the
market. Also, state any two advantages of this method of pricing.
15. Flowing information is related to sales - mix of registers having 100 pages, 200 pages and
300 pages:
16. ‘All business plan for sales volumes and revenues, resource quantities, costs and expenses
etc.’
Identify the concept involved in the above planning and state any two benefits of this type
of plan.
17. Abhiraj Chaudhary is into the business of manufacturing low - cost Diesel Cars in Germany.
He is earning good profits and ambitiously considering overseas expansion. He scans the
environment for finding out the opportunities and threats that may influence his current
and future plans. He zeros down on India as a potential place for his business expansion as
Indian Government has announced favourable trade regulations. On selling the first lot of
cars in India, the Indian Government noticed that the emissions from these cars were above
the permissible limit. The government asked him to make necessary modifications in his
cars if he wanted to continue business in India. He readily agreed to meet the emission
norms set by the Indian Government.
(a) Quoting the lines from the above para identify any two environmental factors.
(b) Also, state any two values which Abiraj Chaudhary tried to communicate to the Indian
Society.
18. State the factors that an entrepreneur has to take into consideration while assessing the
market.
19. Explain any four factors to be taken into consideration while selecting channels of
distribution related to a product
20. Sonu and Monu completed their education from Delhi University. Sonu lived in near the
University, whereas Monu had to go back to his village in Assam. Both of them wanted to
start their own business. Since the Government announced ban on the use of polythene
bags, an idea struck them to start ajute bag manufacturing business. Sonu thought that he
would get the advantage ofUniversity area for marketing thejute bags and will earn good
profits. He also had necessary funds. Therefore he started manufacturing the bags
immediately. He was not having any experience of manufacturing jute bags. He also sold
the bags on less margin due to tough competition. As a result his business failed after a few
years. On the other hand Monu was happy because the raw material was available to him at
a very low cost in Assam and people of the village were ready to work at low wages
because of less job opportunities. Not only this, before starting the business Monu had
researched about the cost - structure, the market, the competitors and the strengths and
weaknesses of the business.
Based on the above paragraph, identify and explain any two causes of failure of Sonu’s
business in comparison to Monu. Also, state any two values which Monu had
communicated to the society through his business.
21. Nitin, an entrepreneur, is living in a beautiful village of Kerala. This village was famous for
its natural beauty but very few people know about it. Due to this entrepreneurial
inclination he always tried to find out opportunities. People of the village are very poor as
they are mostly dependent on fishing. Nitin thought of starting a ‘Holiday Resort’ with
cultural centre, restaurant and other facilities in the village. All the villagers agreed and
supported Nitin for this project. They agree to co- operate to make this project a success.
Nitin needed capital of 2 for this project.
(a) Name the specialized financial institution which Nitin should approach to meet his
requirements.
(b) When was this institution incorporated as a public limited company and became
operational?
(c) What is the main function of this institution?
(d) State any one value which Nitin wants to communicate to the society.
22. Naveen has just completed his B. Tech. and wants to start his own business, he knew that
the demand for electricity in India was increasing day by day. Whereas its generation was
not sufficient. Naveen shared his views with some of his friends and they all decided to
start the business of electricity generation. They experimented various methods and
ultimately succeeded in electricity generation through garbage. They all were happy as
India is also facing the problem of garbage disposal.
(a) Identify and explain the source of ‘idea-field’ from where the idea had been generated
by Naveen and his friends.
(b) Also explain two other sources of Idea-fields with the help of example.Material downloaded from
23. ‘Toto-T mobiles’ is a famous brand of mobile phones. Its target customers are students and
professionals who require specialized features in mobiles. This time the company
developed a small sized wireless mobile charger which is more convenient to use than the
regular charger. This charger is made of recycled material and consumes very less
electricity.
(a) Quoting the lines from the above para identify and explain the two types of ‘added
value’ in the business growth strategy.
(b) Also explain two more types of added value other than discussed in part (a).
24. Explain the steps for the development of the tool of cash management that helps an
entrepreneur in knowing how much cash generation and expenditure is anticipated over a
chosen period of time in future.

HISTORY SAMPLE PAPER

HISTORY (027) SET-2
SAMPLE PAPER 2015- 2016
CLASS –XII
TIME: 3 HRS MM-80
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all the questions. Some questions have choice. Marks are indicated against each
question.
2. Answer to questions no. 1 to 3 carrying 2 marks should not exceed 30 words each
3. Answer to questions no. 4 to 9 carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words. Students should
attempt only five questions in this section
4. Question 10 ( for 4 marks) is a value based question and compulsory question
5. Answer to questions 11 to 13 carrying 8 marks should not exceed 350 words.
6. Questions 14-16 are source based questions and have no internal choice
7. Questions 17 is a Map question includes identification and significant test items. Attach the
map with the answer sheet.
......................................................................................................................................
PART-A
Answer all the questions given below: (2X3=6)
1. Why did Akbar show high respect towards the inter-faith debates? Give two
reasons 2
2. How did Kushanas of first century BCE exemplify themselves with high status?
State any two significant ways 2
3. Compare the racial divide of ‘Black Town’ and ‘White Town’ in colonial India . 2
PART-B
Section-I
Answer any five of the following questions: (4X5=20)
4. ‘Epigraphy alone does not provide a full understanding of political and economic
history.’Justify the statement with its four limitations 4
5. How have archaeologists used evidence from material remains to piece together
parts of a fascinating Harappa history? Explain 4
6. Why were agricultural tracts incorporated within the fortified area of the
Vijayanagara Empire? Give reasons 4
7. Abu’l Fazl had shaped and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of
Akbar‘. Substantiate the statement in the context Mughal court. 4
8. What was the Limitation Law of 1859? State its impacts on the ryots. 4
9. Critically evaluate Governor General Lord Dalhousie’s policy towards Awadh
during 1850s .4
SECTION-II
VALUE BASED QUESTION (Compulsory) (4x1=4)
Read the following lines and answer the question that follows:
A poem by Karaikkal Ammaiyar in which she describes herself:
The female Pey (demoness) with . . . bulging veins,
protruding eyes, white teeth and shrunken stomach,
red haired and jutting teeth, lengthy shins extending till the ankles,
shouts and wails while wandering in the forest.
10 Karaikkal Ammaiyar’s poetry dismantles the paradigm of human order and duty
rooted in the household not by focusing on gender roles, but by extolling devotion.
Highlight the values that provide the potential space for women in this emerging
tradition
4
PART-C
LONG QUESTIONS (8x3=24)
Answer all the questions given below:
11. How did Siddhartha come to be known as the Buddha? Explain his philosophy
mentioned in the Sutta-Pitaka . 4+4= 8
OR
Describe the sculptural aspects of Sanchi Stupa . State the reasons for the
survival of this Stupa
12. Analyze the condition of forest dwellers in the Mughal agrarian society.
OR 8
Examine the role of the village Panchayats in the Mughal period
13. ‘Non cooperation became the epoch in the life of India and of Gandhiji‘. Justify
this statement with examples
OR 8
Buried under the debris of the violence and pain of Indian partition is an
enormous history of help, humanity & harmony’. Explain
PART-D
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS (7x3=21)
14. Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow:
. Proper social roles
Here is a story from the Adi Parvan of the Mahabharata:
Once Drona, a Brahmana who taught archery to the Kuru princes, was approached by
Ekalavya, a forest dwelling nishada (a hunting community). When Drona, who knew the
dharma, refused to have him as his pupil, Ekalavya returned to the forest, prepared an
image of Drona out of clay, and treating it as his teacher, began to practise on his own.
In due course, he acquired great skill in archery. One day, the Kuru princes went
hunting and their dog, wandering in the woods, came upon Ekalavya. When the dog
smelt the dark nishada wrapped in black deer skin, his body caked with dirt, it began to
bark. Annoyed, Ekalavya shot seven arrows into its mouth. When the dog returned to
the Pandavas, they were amazed at this superb display of archery. They tracked down
Ekalavya, who introduced himself as a pupil of Drona. Drona had once told his favourite
student Arjuna, that he would be unrivalled amongst his pupils. Arjuna now reminded
Drona about this. Drona approached Ekalavya, who immediately acknowledged and
honoured him as his teacher. When Drona demanded his right thumb as his fee,
Ekalavya unhesitatingly cut it off and offered it. But thereafter, when he shot with his
remaining fingers, he was no longer as fast as he had been before. Thus, Drona kept
his word: no one was better than Arjuna.
14.1 Why did Drona refuse to have Eklavya as his pupil? 2
14.2 What did Drona demand from Eklavya? How did Eklavya react on it? 3
14.3 Why did Drona ask for such type of gurudakshina? Give reasons. 2
15 Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Education and Entertainment
This is what Ibn Juzayy, who was deputed to write what Ibn Battuta dictated, said in his
introduction:
A gracious direction was transmitted (by the ruler) that he (Ibn Battuta) should dictate an
account of the cities which he had seen in his travel, and of the interesting events which
had clung to his memory, and that he should speak of those whom he had met of the
rulers of countries, of their distinguished men of learning, and their pious saints.
Accordingly, he dictated upon these subjects a narrative which gave entertainment to
the mind and delight to the ears and eyes, with a variety of curious particulars by the
exposition of which he gave edification and of marvellous things, by referring to which
he aroused interest.
15.1 Who was Ibn Batuta? 2
15.2 Mention any three exciting things which he noticed in India . 3
15.3 How has Ibn Batuta accounted his travelling experience in Rihla? 2
16 Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow:
“The real minorities are the masses of this country’
Welcoming the Objectives Resolution introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru, N.G.
Ranga said:
Sir, there is a lot of talk about minorities. Who are the real minorities? Not the
Hindus in the so-called Pakistan provinces, not the Sikhs, not even the Muslims.
No, the real minorities are the masses of this country. These people are so
depressed and oppressed and suppressed till now that they are notable to take
advantage of the ordinary civil rights.
What is the position? You go to the tribal areas. According to law, their own
traditional law, their tribal law, their lands cannot be alienated. Yet our
merchants go there, and in the so-called free market they are able to snatch their
lands. Thus,even though the law goes against this snatching away of their lands,
still the merchants are able to turn the tribal people into veritable slaves by
various kinds of bonds, and make them hereditary bond-slaves. Let us go to the
ordinary villagers. There goes the money-lender with his money and he is able to
get the villagers in his pocket. There is the landlord himself, the zamindar, and
the malguzar and there are the various other people who are able to exploit
these poor villagers. There is no elementary education even among these
people. These are the real minorities that need protection and assurances of
protection. In order to give them the necessary protection, we will need much
more than this Resolution ...
16.1 On which aspect N G Ranga has drawn attention? 3
16.2 Mention the gulf that separated the broad masses of Indians 2
16.3 What kind of protection was needed for the real minority 2
PART-E
MAP QUESTIONS (2+3=5)
17 1 On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with
appropriate symbols 1x2=2
a. Kot Diji
b. Agra, the imperial capital of Mughal
17.2 On the same outline map of India , three centres related to the Indian National
Movement have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them. 1x3=3
NOTE: The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only in
lieu of Q17
17.1 Name any one mature Harappa Sites..
17.2 Name any one capital city of Mughal Empire.
17.3 Name any three centres related with Indian National Movement
17 .Map Question
C
A
B
C

english sample paper

1
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS XII
ENGLISH CORE
Time- 3 hr. SET B M.M-100
The question paper is divided in to three sections.
Section A: Reading 30 Marks
Section B: Advanced Writing Skills 30 marks
Section C: Literature, Text Books & Long Reading Texts 40 Marks
Instructions:-
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. You may attempt any section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION A
(READING) – 30 marks
Q1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
1. One of the greatest sailing adventures of the past 25 years was the
conquest of the Northwest Passage, powered by sail, human muscle, and
determination. In 100 days, over three summers (1986-88), Canadians Jeff
MacInnis and Mike Beedell accomplished the first wind-powered crossing
of the Northwest Passage.
2. In Jeff MacInnis's words...Our third season. We weave our way through
the labyrinth of ice, and in the distance we hear an unmistakable sound. A
mighty bowhead whale is nearby, and its rhythmic breaths fill us with awe.
Finally we see it relaxed on the surface, its blowhole quivering like a
volcanic cone, but it senses our presence and quickly sounds. We are very
disappointed. We had only good intentions - to revel in its beautiful
immensity and to feel its power. Mike thinks how foolish it would be for
this mighty beast to put any faith in us. After all, we are members of the
species that had almost sent the bowhead into extinction with our greed for
whale oil and bone. It is estimated that as many as 38,000 bowheads were
killed off eastern Baffin Island in the 1800s; today there are about 200 left.
3. The fascinating and sometimes terrifying wildlife keeps us entertained
during our explorations. Bearded harp and ring seals greet us daily. The
profusion of bird life is awesome; at times we see and smell hundreds of
thousands of thick-billed murres clinging to their cliffside nests. Our
charts show we are on the edge of a huge shoal where the frigid ocean
currents upswell and mix nutrients that provide a feast for the food chain.
At times these animals scare the living daylights out of us. They have a
knack of sneaking up behind us and then shooting out of the water and
belly flopping for maximum noise and splash. A horrendous splash
coming from behind has a heart-stopping effect in polar bear country.
4. We have many encounters with the "Lords of the Arctic," but we are
always cautious, observant, and ever so respectful that we are in their
domain. In some regions the land is totally devoid of life, while in others
the pulse of life takes our breath away. Such is the paradox of the Arctic;
It's wastelands flow into oasis' that are found nowhere else on the face of
the earth. Many times we find ancient signs of Inuit people who lived here,
superbly attuned to the land. We feel great respect for them; this landscape
is a challenge at every moment.
5. We face a 35 mile open water passage across Prince Regent Inlet on
Baffin Island that will take us to our ultimate goal - Pond Inlet on Baffin
12
2
Bay. The breakers look huge from the water's edge. Leaning into the hulls,
like bobsledders at the starting gate, we push as hard as we can down the
gravel beach to the sea. We catch the water and keep pushing until we
have plunged waist deep, then drag ourselves aboard. Immediately, we
begin paddling with every ounce of effort. Inch by agonizing inch,
Perception moves offshore. Sweat pours off our bodies. Ahead of us,
looming gray-white through the fog, we see a massive iceberg riding the
current like the ghost of a battleship. There is no wind to fill our sails and
steady the boat, and the chaotic motion soon brings seasickness. Slowly
the wind begins to build. Prince Regent Inlet now looks ominous with
wind and waves. The frigid ocean hits us square in the face and chills us to
the bone.
6. We were on the fine edge. Everything the Arctic had taught us over the
last 90 days was now being tested. We funneled all that knowledge, skill,
teamwork, and spirit into this momentous crossing... If we went over in
these seas we could not get the boat back up. Suddenly the wind speed
plummeted to zero as quickly as it had begun.... Now we were being
pushed by the convulsing waves toward sheer 2,000 foot cliffs. Two
paddles were our only power. Sailing past glacier capped mountains, we
approached the end of our journey. At 05:08 on the morning of our
hundredth day, speeding into Baffin Bay, the spray from our twin hulls
makes rainbows in the sun as we complete the first sail powered voyage
through the Northwest Passage.
7. We have journeyed through these waters on their terms, moved by the
wind, waves and current. The environment has always been in control of
our destiny; we have only tried to respond in the best possible way. We've
been awake for nearly 23 hours, but we cannot sleep. The joy and
excitement are too great. Our Hobie Cat rests on the rocky beach, the wind
whistling in her rigging, her bright yellow hulls radiant in the morning
sunlight. She embodies the watchword for survival in the Arctic -
adaptability. (aprox.838 words)
1.1 On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate option
1. The passage is about the
A. author’s sailing adventure through the Northwest Passage
B. flora and fauna of the Arctic
C. survival skills needed while sailing
D. saving of the Arctic
2. “Lords of the Arctic," (Para 4) refers to the
A. wind breakers
B. icebergs
C. polar Bears
D. Innuits
3. The author’s sailing vessel is named
A. Prince Regent
B. Hobie Cat
C. Perception
D. Arctic
1x4=4
3
4. ‘We were on the fine edge’ refers to
A. the Prince Regent Inlet
B. the ominous sail
C. the frigid ocean
D. their expedition
1.2 Answer the following questions briefly:
1. Why does the author feel disappointed to see the bowhead whale disappear
into the ocean?
2. How does his sailing partner rationalize it ?
3. What reason does the author give for a thriving wildlife in the Arctic?
4. What is the paradox of the Arctic?
5. How did certain skills help the author and his partner survive the
adventure?
6. What is the author’s sailing vessel an embodiment of?
1.3 Pick out the words/phrases from the passage which are similar in
meaning to the following:
a. abundance (Para 3)
b. threatening (Para 5)
(1x6=6)
(1 x2 = 2)
Q2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
1. By the time a child is six or seven, she has all the essential avoidances
well enough by heart to be trusted with the care of a younger child.
And she also develops a number of simple techniques. She learns to
weave firm square balls from palm leaves, to make pinwheels of palm
leaves or frangipani blossoms, to climb a coconut tree by walking up
the trunk on flexible little feet, to break open a coconut with one firm
well-directed blow of a knife as long as she is tall, to play a number of
group games and sing the songs which go with them, to tidy the house
by picking up the litter on the stony floor, to bring water from the sea,
to spread out the copra to dry and to help gather it in when rain
threatens, to go to a neighboring house and bring back a lighted faggot
for the chief's pipe or the cook-house fire.
2. But in the case of the little girls, all these tasks are merely
supplementary to the main business of baby-tending. Very small boys
also have some care of the younger children, but at eight or nine years
of age they are usually relieved of it. Whatever rough edges have not
been smoothed off by this responsibility for younger children are worn
off by their contact with older boys. For little boys are admitted to
interesting and important activities only so long as their behavior is
circumspect and helpful.
3. Where small girls are brusquely pushed aside, small boys will be
patiently tolerated and they become adept at making themselves
useful. The four or five little boys who all wish to assist at the
important, business of helping a grown youth lasso reef eels, organize
themselves into a highly efficient working team; one boy holds the
10
4
bait, another holds an extra lasso, others poke
eagerly about in holes in the reef looking for prey, while still another
tucks the captured eels into his lavalava. The small girls, burdened
with heavy babies or the care of little staggerers who are too small to
adventure on the reef, discouraged by the hostility of the small boys
and the scorn of the older ones, have little opportunity for learning the
more adventurous forms of work
and play.
4. So while the little boys first undergo the chastening effects of babytending
and then have many
opportunities to learn effective cooperation under the supervision of
older boys, the girls' education is less comprehensive. They have a
high standard of individual responsibility, but the
community provides them with no lessons in cooperation with one
another. This is particularly apparent in the activities of young people:
the boys organize quickly; the girls waste hours in
bickering, innocent of any technique for quick and efficient
cooperation. (473 words)
Adapted from: Coming of Age in Samoa, Margaret Mead
(1928)
2.1 On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate option
a. The primary purpose of the passage with reference to the society under
discussion is to
i. explain some differences in the upbringing of girls and boys
ii. criticize the deficiencies in the education of girls
iii. give a comprehensive account of a day in the life of an
average young girl
iv. delineate the role of young girls
b. The list of techniques in paragraph one could best be described as
i. household duties
ii. rudimentary physical skills
iii. important responsibilities
iv. useful social skills
2.2 Answer the following as briefly as possible:
a. What is the prime responsibility of a girl child by the time she is six or
seven?
b. What simple techniques does she learn at this stage?
c. What household chores is she responsible for?
(1x2 = 2)
(1x6=6)
5
d. In what way is a boy’s life different?
e. What qualities ensure that the boys move on to a higher responsibility?
f. Why do girls have little opportunity for learning the more adventurous forms
of work and play?
g. In what way is the girls’ education less comprehensive?
h. How is this apparent?
2.3 Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following:
a. brusquely (para 3)
b. scorn (para 3)
(1x2=2)
Q3. Read the following passage carefully:
1. It seems that there is never enough time in the day. But, since we all
get the same 24 hours, why is it that some people achieve so much
more with their time than others? The answer lies in good time
management. “Time management” refers to the way that you organize
and plan how long you spend on specific activities. Good time
management requires an important shift in focus from activities to
results: being busy isn’t the same as being effective. (Ironically, the
opposite is often closer to the truth.) Spending your day in a frenzy of
activity often achieves less, because you’re dividing your attention
between so many different tasks. Good time management lets you
work smarter – not harder – so you get more done in less time.
2. It may seem counter-intuitive to dedicate precious time to learning
about time management, instead of using it to get on with your work,
but the benefits are enormous. It improves productivity and efficiency.
Your reputation as a professional grows. The stress levels dip and the
a world of opportunities opens up for you. Your career advances and
important goals are reached.
3. Failing to manage your time effectively can have some very
undesirable consequences. Deadlines are missed and the work flow is
not only inefficient but of poor quality. It dents your reputation as a
professional and your career is in in danger of being stalled. As a
result your stress level shoots up.
4. Everyday interruptions at work can be a key barrier to managing your
time effectively and, ultimately, can be a barrier to your success.
Think back to your last workday, and consider for a minute the many
interruptions that occurred. There may have been phone calls, emails,
hall way conversations, colleagues stopping by your office, or
anything else that unexpectedly demanded your attention and, in doing
so, distracted you from the task at-hand. Because your day only has so
many hours in it, a handful of small interruptions can rob you of the
time you need to achieve your goals and be successful in your work
and life. More than this, they can break your focus, meaning that you
have to spend time re-engaging with the thought processes needed to
successfully complete complex work. The key to controlling
interruptions is to know what they are and whether they are necessary,
(8 )
6
and to plan for them in your daily schedule. ( 403 words)
a. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it using
headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations wherever
necessary.
b. Write a summary of the above in 80 words using the notes.
5
3
SECTION B
(ADVANCED WRITING SKILLS) – 30 marks
Q4. In a recent survey it was found that your city has the highest rate of pollution
in the country. Innumerable vehicles on the road and lack of green cover have
made the air unfit to breathe. Draft a poster in about 50 words, creating
awareness about the need to keep your city clean and green.. You are
Rakhsita/Rohit of MVN Public School.
OR
Your school is organizing a SPICMACAY programme on the occasion of the
World Dance Day wherein the renowned Bharatanatyam dancer, Geeta
Chandran would be giving a lecture demonstration. As the President, Cultural
Society of your school, draft a notice in about 50 words, informing the
students about the same. You are Rakhsita/Rohit of MVN Public School.
4
Q 5. Your school recently launched a GPRS system in the school buses which will
enable the parents to keep track of their children while they are travelling in
the bus. The service, however, is not smooth and is facing a lot of problems.
As the Transport Incharge of DML Public School, Delhi, write a letter in about
120-150 words to the Manager, Forumloft, 21 Park Street, Delhi, complaining
about the same.
OR
Your school has opened a new activity wing for the kindergarten students for
which you require play equipment. Write a letter to the Manager, OK Toys,
21, Daryaganj, Delhi, in about 120-150 words placing an order for educational
toys and other play equipment. You are Neera/Naresh, Manager, DML Public
School, Delhi
6
Q 6. Although students have been using cell phones consistently in their daily lives
for almost a decade, schools continue to resist allowing the devices into the
classroom. Schools generally grapple with new technologies, but cell phones’
reputation as a nuisance and a distraction has been hard to dislodge. Using
information given below prepare a speech in about 150-200 words in favour of
or against the cell phone being allowed in schools.
 encourage the non-educational use of devices in school
 they will be a significant distraction for teachers and students
 a potential tool for cheating
 could encourage cyberbullying
 other hand BYOD-Bring Your Own Device is gaining
momentum as a learning tool.
 can be cost effective.
 banning any type of technology may foster inequity
 develop rules for how students physically handle the device in
the class.
10
7
OR
It is a toss-up between Class X boards & CCE. The board exams were once
considered a rite of passage but with the introduction of the Continuous and
Comprehensive Evaluation, (CCE), students have greater choice. Write a
speech in about 150-200 words in favour of or against the topic giving reasons
for your stand.
 The CCE allows students to study select portions of the year's
syllabus for the examination.
 Stress free and comprehensive
 encourages project work more than rote learning
 Board exams only a standardized system.
 cater to the competitive spirit provide an equal platform for
students from all strata.
Q 7. You recently attended a workshop on creative writing that was conducted by
Scholastic India Ltd. Write a report in about 150-200 words for your school
magazine giving details. You are Akshay/ Akshita. of Graham Public School,
Indore.
OR
As part of an Entrepreneurship project the commerce students of your school
recently launched a product called Oatlicious. They not only set up a company
to produce the product but also designed its advertising and marketing
strategy. Write a report in about 150-200 words for your school magazine
giving details of the enterprise and its launch. You are Akshay/ Akshita of
Graham Public School, Indore.
10
SECTION C
(LITERATURE, TEXT BOOKS, A LONG READING TEXT) – 40 marks
Q 8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
“Perhaps the Earth can teach us
As when everything seems dead
And later proves to be alive
Now I will count upto twelve
And you keep quiet and I will go.”
a) What does the Earth teach us?
b) What does the poet mean to achieve by counting upto twelve?
c) What is the significance of “keeping quiet”?
OR
Aunt Jennifer’s fingers fluttering through her wool
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s hand.
a) Why are Aunt Jennifer’s fingers fluttering?
b) What is the result of the fluttering?
c) Explain: ‘The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band’.
d) What is Aunt Jennifer’s state of mind?
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
8
Q 9. Answer any four of the following in about 30 -40 words each:
a. How was M. Hamel dressed differently that day? Why?
b. Mention any two long term consequences of the drowning incident
on Douglas.
c. How does the poem, ‘An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum’,
portray the children?
d. According to Keats, what moves the pain and suffering away from
human life?
e. How did the Tiger King’s Diwan prove to be resourceful?
f. How does Evans escape from the jail?
3x4=12
Q 10. Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words :
Edla is able to bring about a change of heart in the Pedlar. Justify this with
reference to the story, ‘The Rattrap’. What qualities helped her bring about this
transformation?
OR
Why did Gandhiji consider freedom from fear more important than legal
justice for the poor peasants of Champaran?
6
Q 11. Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words :
What efforts were made by Dr . Sadao and Hana to save the life of the injured
man?
OR
Do you think Jack shared an affinity with Roger Skunk? Explain.
6
Q 12. Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words:
How do both the thefts determine Marner’s interaction with the people of
Raveloe?
OR
What disadvantages does Griffin face because of his invisibility?
6
Q 13. Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words
Not only does Eppie have golden hair but she also has a heart of gold. Justify
by giving instances from the novel.
OR
Griffin is the model of science without humanity. Justify with reference to the
Invisible Man.
6

geography sample paper

1
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER SET-II
CLASS XII
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
2015-2016
TIME ALLOWED- 3 HRS. MAXIMUM MARKS-70
General Instructions:
I. There are 22 questions in all.
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
IV. Question numbers 01 to 07 are very short answer questions
carrying 01 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should
not exceed 40 words.
V. Question numbers 08 to 13 are short answer questions carrying
03 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based
question. Answer to each of these Questions should not exceed
80-100 words.
VI. Question numbers 14 to 20 are long answer questions carrying
05 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not
exceed 150 words.
VII. Question number 21 and 22 are related to identification or
locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying
5 marks each.
VIII. Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be
attached within your answer book.
IX. Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.
1. How can you say that both push and pull factors give birth to
migration? 1
2. What do you mean by behavioural school of thought? 1
3. Give two cause of growing trend of sub-urbanisation. 1
4. Name any two famous bauxite mines of India. 1
5. What is a digital divide? 1
2
6. What are white collar workers? 1
7. Name any one national waterway of India. 1
8. Study the following table and answer the questions that
follow: 3x1=3
I.Name any two states with HDI value lower than 0.40.
II.What do you think how would thoughts of Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq
or Prof. Amartya Sen be helpful in raising the level of human
development in these states of India?
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 8)
1. Name any two states with low HDI values.
2. What do you think how would thoughts of Dr. Mahbub-ul-
Haq or Prof. Amartya Sen be helpful in raising the level of
human development in these states of India?
3
9. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions
that follow- 3x1=3
(i) Name the transport line shown in the map.
(ii) Name two ocean/sea coasts which are being connected by this
transport line.
(iii) Give any one point of significance of this transport line.
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 9)
(i) Name the Trans-continental railway line of North America.
(ii)Name two ocean coasts which are being connected by this
railway line.
(iii) Give any one point of significance of this railway line.
10. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions:
3x1=3
4
a) Identify the canal shown in the map.
b) Name the two water bodies joined by the canal.
c) What is the importance of this canal.
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 10)
a) Name one shipping canal.
b) Name the two water bodies joined by that canal.
c) What is the importance of that canal.
11. Study the map given below and answer the questions that
follow: 3x1=3
5
i. Which economic activity is revealed in the shaded
portion?
ii. What are the products of primary activity in these
regions?
iii. Name any one region where it is best developed.
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 11)
i. What is meant by the term economic activity?
ii. Differentiate between primary and secondary activities.
12. VALUE-BASED QUESTION
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1.5+1.5=3
“The design and use of building materials of houses vary from one
ecological region to another.
The houses made up of mud, wood and thatch, remain susceptible to
damage during heavy rains and floods, and require proper
maintenance every year. Most house designs are typically deficient in
proper ventilation. Besides, the design of a house includes the animal
6
shed along with its fodder-store within it. This is purposely done to
keep the domestic animals and their food properly protected from
wild animals.
Unmetalled roads and lack of modern communication network
creates a unique problem. During rainy season, the settlements
remain cut off and pose serious difficulties in providing emergency
services. It is also difficult to provide adequate health and educational
infrastructure for their large rural population. The problem is
particularly serious where proper villagisation has not taken place and
houses are scattered over a large area.”
(i) Justify the statement, “The problem is particularly serious where
proper villagisation has not taken place and houses are
scattered over a large area.”
(ii)Find out the values associated with it.
13. Study the following map and answer the questions that follow:
1+2=3
7
(i) Why do we have good quality river water near the mountains
and poor quality in the lower plains?
(ii) What can be the role of each individual in controlling water
pollution?
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 13)
(i) What are the two main causes of river water pollution?
(ii) What can be the role of each individual in controlling water
pollution?
14. “Nomadic herding and Commercial Livestock Rearing are the two
types of animal rearing.” Define them and give their important
features. 5
15. Find out the five major problems of agricultural sector in India.
5
16. Describe the achievements and contribution of Indian railways in
the economy. 5
17. Discuss the five factors which favoured the concentration of Iron
and Steel industry in the Chhotanagpur region (comprising parts of
Chhattisgarh, northern Odisha, Jharkhand and western West Bengal)
in India. 5
18. Which socio-economic benefits are being observed by
implementation of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) in
Bharmaur? 5
19. “Mediterranean Agriculture is highly specialised commercial
agriculture.” Discuss the statement by giving suitable arguments.5
20. Tourism has become an important activity but it is affected by
many factors. Giving its importance explain the factors. 5
8
21. Identify the five geographical features shown on the World Map
and write their correct names on the lines marked near each
feature: 5x1=5
A. An industrial region
B. A major area of mixed farming
C. A major sea port in Asia
D. A mega city
E. An international airport in Australia
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 21)
A. Name an industrial region in the world.
B. Name any one major area of mixed farming in the world.
C. Name any one major sea port in Asia.
D. Name a mega city in Europe.
E. Name an international airport in Australia continent.
22. Locate and label the following in the given outline political map of
India: 5x1=5
I. A highly urbanized state
II. A leading producing state of tea
III. A major sea port in Kerala
IV. A cotton textile centre in Karnataka
V. Any one million plus city in Uttar Pradesh
FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY (IN LIEU OF Q. NO. 22)
a) Name a highly urbanized state in India.
b) Name a leading producing state of tea in
India.
c) Name a major sea port in Kerala.
9
d) Name a cotton textile centre in Karnataka.
e) Name any one million plus city in Uttar
Pradesh.
21. WORLD MAP
10
11
22. MAP OF INDIA

Wednesday, 19 October 2016

NATURE OF LIFE

      


IAS PAPER-2 ENGLISH WITH ANSWER

Exam Name: IAS (Pre.)

Subject: CSAT Paper -2


Year: 2016
Test Booklet Series: A
Passage-1
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the ---Central-Vigilance Commission-and-Comptroller and Auditor—General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.
Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should he defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.
1. According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?
1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer .c
2. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Earlier UPSC had notified that CSAT would not be considered in deciding the ranking and cut-off and it would be qualifying in nature.
Answer .d
3. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?

(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services
Answer .d
4. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?
(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process
Answer .d

Passage-2
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; rights and duties cannot remain formal abstraction. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as  a personal virtue, this  solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. 
5. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer . a
6. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?
(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
(c) Balance between and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god
Answer .c
7. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was: 
(a) Apple
(b) Pineapple
(c) Grapes
(d) Oranges
Answer . d
8. Consider the following statements.
1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country
2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country
Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?
(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate
Answer .d
9. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?
(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north
Answer . b
10. Consider the following statement:
"We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking".
Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?
(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking
Answer .d
11. There were 50 faculty member comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party is was discovered that no members knew music. The conclusion is that:
(a) the party comprised male faculty members only
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
(c) the party comprised both male and female faculty members
(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party
Answer .a
12. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.
(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A
On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?
1. D is seated next to B
2. E is seated next to A
3. D and C are separated by two seats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
Answer . b
13. There are five hobby clubs in a college —photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days? 
(a) 5
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 3
Answer .d
14. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3
Answer . c
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.
15. Who is the doctor?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) R
Answer . a
16. Who is the artist?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T
Answer . c
17. Who is the spouse of R?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S
Answer . b
18. Who is the lawyer?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Answer . b
19. Who of the following is definitely a man?
(a) P
(b) S
(s) Q
(d) None of the above
Answer . c
20. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed? 
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 22
Answer . c
Directions for the following 5 (five) items : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. 
Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
21. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation?
1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass
2. Biomass production competes with food production
3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer . d
22. Which of the following can lead to food security problem?
1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation
2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage
3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer .b
23. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?
1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050
2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources
3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer .b
24. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been mad :
1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions
2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources
Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer .a
Passage-2
We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.
25. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run
Answer .d
26. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:
(a) 48 minutes
(b) 50 minutes
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes
Answer .a
27. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows : A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?
(a) 23 minutes
(b) 22 minutes
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
Answer .a
28. 30g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar Was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is
(a) sweeter than that in C
(b) sweeter than that in A
(c) as sweet as that in C
(d) less sweet than that in C
Answer .d
29. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 45
Answer .b
30. Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer .b
31. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 21
Answer .b
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C
Answer .d
33. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%
Answer .c
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given -formation and answer the three items that follow.
Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
34. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) None of the above
Answer .b
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) D is painted yellow
(b) F is painted indigo
(c) B is painted blue
(d) All of the above
Answer .b
36. The football is in the box of which colour?
(a) Yellow
(b) Indigo
(c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
(d) Blue
Answer .c
37. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?
(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%
Answer .b
38. A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to  maintain the Shuttle Service?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7
Answer . a*
39. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 7 cm
Answer .c
40. In a. question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices - True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:
(a) 10
(b) 18
(c) 26
(d) 32
Answer . *
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return forpayoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.
41. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?
(a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes r are urgently needed
(b) Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present
(d) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector
Answer .c
Passage-2
Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information series. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.
42. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries
(b) Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation
(c) Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation
(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development ptions
Answer .d
Passage-3
Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.
43. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?
(a) biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water
(b) We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves
(d) Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle
Answer .a
Passage-4
In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man
44. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?
(a) Need for more automation and more products of bank
(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system
(c) Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions
(d) Need to promote financial inclusion
Answer .d
Passage-5
Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to  women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dimity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, ones to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the  use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.
45. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only
2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer .b
Passage-6
To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every  individual, impel the whole of them into society.
46. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?
(a) Nature has created a great diversity in human society
(b) Any given human society is always short of its wants
(c) Social life is a specific characteristic of man
(d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system
Answer .d                       
Passage-7
The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.
47. The statement refers to:
(a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics
(b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics
(c) the predominance of Economics over Politics
(d) the predominance of Politics over Economics
Answer .b
Passage-8
About 15 percent of global  greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, sayannah burning and deforestation. Foresty and use, and land-use change account for another    percent of greenhouse gas emissions each ear, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.
48. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Organic farming should immediately replace mechanised and chemical dependant agricultural practices all over the world
(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change.
(c) There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration
Answer .a
49. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point 'O' on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point 'A' after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point 'A' he moves to point 'B' in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point 'O'?
(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km
Answer .b
50. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X1 meters and breadth X2 meters (X1 and X2 are variable). If X1 + X2 = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?
(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m
Answer .a
51. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby ?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months
Answer .b
52. The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11
Answer .a
53. A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps doe he ladder have?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer .b
Direction for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.
When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order Kumar and Singh.
Further, we know that :
1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater
2. C wore a tie
3. Singh's garment was not white
4. Kumar does not wear a jacket
5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour
6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour
54. What is C's surname ? 
(a) Riberio
(b) Kumar
(c) Singh
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer .a
55. What is the colour of the tie ?
(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer .b
56. Who wore the sweater ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer .a
57. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is:
(a) 20 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 35 m
Answer .b
58. A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km
Answer .a
59. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer .d
60. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the  job.  How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 11 days
Answer .c
61. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as:
(a) CARFTION
(b) FRACNOIT
(c) NOITCARF
(d) CARFNOIT
Answer .d
62. If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?
(a) R - S is divisible by 5
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R x S is divisible by 25
(d) R2 + S2 is divisible by 5
Answer .b
63. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?
(a) 110
(b) 111
(c) 112
(d) None of the above
Answer .a
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best hartaen on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing. world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.
64. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources
(b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries
(c) Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the health concerns
(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us
Answer .a
Passage-2

All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.
65. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?
(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world
(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members
(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies
(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any dairy product
Answer .b
Passage-3
"The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels."
66. In the above statement, the author implies that:
(a) the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels
(b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult
(c) no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels
(d) a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment
Answer .d
Passage-4
An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plant and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet soil In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in a plants and Earth's atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil  that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its relsase into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
67. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage ?
(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of microorganisms and plants
(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth
(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil
Answer .d
Passage-5
Historically, the biggest Challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domesticagriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surplues to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, Spply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of Inoger, starvation, under or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pock  hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as 'a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply` of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capailities individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.
68. According to the above passage, which of, the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?
1. Setting up more agro-based industries
2. Improving the price affordability by the poor
3. Regulating the conditions of marketing
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 an 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4
Answer .b
69. According to the above passage, the biggest  challenge to world agriculture is:
(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries
(b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries
(c) to achieve a balance between the production of food and non-food items
(d) to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of  food
Answer .d
70. According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies ?
1. Balancing demand and supply of food
2. Increasing imports of food
3. creasing purchasing power of the poor
4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer .c
71. The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of:
1. overgrowth of the population worldwide
2. sharp decline in the area of food production
3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer .b
72. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further,
1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) None of the above
Answer .a
73. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5m x 4m x 6m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6
Answer .a
74. In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is:
(a) 13
(b  12
(c) 7
(d) 3
Answer .b
75. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2  rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respecely. How many times shall they cross each other after 8 00 a.m. and before 9.30. a.m.?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8
Answer .a
76. W can do 25% of a work-in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?
(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z
Answer .d
77. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?
(a) Rs. 12,000
(b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 34,000
Answer .d
78. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line On a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only  one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total  distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart ?
(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 150 m
(d) 75 m
Answer .d
79. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability, that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.20
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.04
Answer .c
80. A person allows 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?
(a) Rs. 610
(b) Rs. 620
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 640
Answer .c